Saturday 24 December 2016

PAD 530 Week 2 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW



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Week 2 DQ 1
"Building HRM Capacity" Please respond to the following:
·         Imagine you are the consultant for the agency you selected in the Week 1 e-Activity (you may choose from one of the e-Activities). Assume the selected agency is large but poorly performing in a highly visible public program which did not have performance measures for employees. The public program serves over two million citizens across the 52 states. Propose and provide a rationale for two change strategies to address the agency’s performance.
·         Propose two methods of performance measures for the department to meet within six months. Provide a rationale for each method.   
Class, use this format to respond to this Discussion:
Propose and provide a rationale for two change strategies to address the agency’s performance
Rational 1: (Place your response here!)
Rational 2: (Place your response here!)

Propose two methods of performance measures for the department to meet within six months. Provide a rationale for each method
Method and Performance Measure 1: (Place your response here!)
Method and Performance Measure 2: (Place your response here!)

References:
List your References for your citations above (Cite your sources for information and data provided, just as you would in any written assignment).

Week 2 DQ 2
"Fragile and Transitional States" Please respond to the following:
·         Build on your previous discussion answer about change strategies and performance measures, and analyze issues and / or needs associated with strengthening the competency-base of employees in meeting the needs of globalization.
·         Recommend at least two strategies the agency needs to adapt to meet those issues and / or needs effectively.
Class, use this format to respond to this Discussion:

Build on your previous discussion answer about change strategies and performance measures, and analyze issues and / or needs associated with strengthening the competency-base of employees in meeting the needs of globalization. (Place your response here!)

Recommend at least two strategies the agency needs to adapt to meet those issues and / or needs effectively
Strategy 1 (Place your response here!)
Strategy 2(Place your response here!)

References:List your References for your citations above (Cite your sources for information and data provided, just as you would in any written assignment).



PAD 530 Week 2 Assignment 1 – Strayer NEW


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Assignment 1: Rationale and Analysis for Agency Selected, Part 1
Due Week 2 and worth 100 points
Refer to the Scenario for Assignments 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper, titled Rationale and Analysis for Agency Selected, Part 1
1.  Provide background information about the agency’s key historical events, mission, and goals / objectives. (Title this section Introduction)
2.  Describe at least three (3) functions of this agency, highlighting the public it serves. (Title this section Agency Functions)
3.  Analyze at least two (2) current events involving the agency that might have implications to personnel management. (Use the e-Activities from Week 1 and Week 2.) (Title this section Agency News)
4.  Explain the rationale for selecting this agency with at least two (2) justifiable reasons. (Title this section Rationale for Selecting Agency)
5.  List at least four (4) academic sources and government Websites you expect to access in your research. (Include no more than one (1) non-government Website)
Some Websites you may want to access are:
o U.S. Government Website located at www.usa.gov
o Office of Personnel Management Website located at www.opm.gov o FedWorld Website located at http://www.fedworld.gov/
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
                              Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. When referencing Websites, make sure you follow APA formatting within the text and on the Reference Page.
                              Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. 
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
                              Analyze key historical and legislative events in the development of personnel management in the public sector.
                              Analyze pertinent issues, such as motivation and productivity, collective bargaining, labor relations, equal employment opportunity (EEO), affirmative action (AA), intergovernmental relations, and / or professionalism, facing public personnel managers.
                              Assess external organizational and employee conditions as well as their implications to and impact on personnel management.
                              Develop a proposal for strategic public personnel management for a specific setting.
                              Use technology and information resources to research issues in public personnel management.
                              Write clearly and concisely about public personnel management using proper writing mechanics.


PAD 500 Week 2 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW



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Week 2 DQ 1
"Relationships of Leadership."  Please respond to the following:


·         Construct an analysis of public administration at the present moment as it relates to the duties of the Executive, Legislative, and Judicial branches of government. 
·         Evaluate the three basic forms of city government from the point of view of a departmental head.

Week 2 DQ 2
"The Political Context. Based on the reading of Federalist Paper 51"  Please respond to the following:


·         Describe how the Founders' conception of the Constitution (reflected in Madison's arguments) influenced the evolution of American public administration. 
·         Explain three reasons why observers see growth in the development of public service



MKT 475 Week 2 Quiz – Strayer NEW



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Chapter 01

New Challenges for Market-Driven Strategy

True/False Questions

1. The underlying logic of market-driven strategy is that production needs are the starting point in business strategy.


2. Customer linking is an example of an outside-in process.




3. The outside-in organizational processes connect the organization to the external environment, providing market feedback and forging external relationships.




4. Pricing is an example of an outside-in process.




5. The inside-out processes play a key role in offering direction for the spanning and outside-in capabilities, which respond to the customer needs and requirements identified by the inside-out processes.




6. The organizational process view of distinctive capabilities requires shifting away from the traditional specialization of business functions toward a cross-functional process perspective.




7. Superior customer value results from a very favorable use experience of the customer compared to expectations of the customer and the value offerings of competitors.




8. Corporate objectives are concerned with resolving questions about the business the firm should be in, where it should focus, and its enduring strategic purpose.



9. Synergies highlight competencies, resources, and capabilities that drive efficiency and effectiveness in the business.



10. The purpose of strategic positioning is to locate the people (or organizations) that management wishes to serve in the product-market.



Multiple Choice Questions

11. _____ is a business perspective that makes the customer the focal point of a company’s total operations.
A. Market orientation
B. Competitive parity
C. Value chain integration
D. Business scaffolding



12. Getting all business functions working together to provide superior customer value is referred to as _____.
A. customer relationship management
B. competitor intelligence
C. cross-functional coordination
D. centralization


13. _____ are complex bundles of skills and accumulated knowledge, excised through organizational processes, that enables firms to coordinate activities and make use of their assets.
A. Business clusters
B. Competitor faculties
C. Cross functions
D. Distinctive capabilities


14. _____ consist(s) of the benefits and costs resulting from the purchase and use of products as perceived by the buyer.
A. Customer value
B. Distinctive capabilities
C. Spanning process
D. Market sensing


15. _____ consist(s) of deciding the scope and purpose of the business, the objectives, and the resources necessary to achieve the objectives.
A. Marketing strategy
B. Corporate strategy
C. Market sensing
D. Channel bonding



  12
16. With regard to corporate strategy, _____ is/are concerned with resolving questions about the business the firm should be in, where it should focus, and its enduring strategic purpose.
A. corporate objectives
B. synergies
C. scope
D. resource allocation



17. With regard to a corporate strategy framework, _____ define(s) what the corporation is and what it does and provides important guidelines for managing and improving the corporation. 
A. resource allocation
B. synergies
C. objectives
D. management’s vision


18. In a corporate strategy, _____ indicate(s) the dimensions of performance upon which to focus and the levels of achievement required.
A. corporate objectives
B. synergies
C. vision
D. scope



19. Which of the following is the final component of the corporate strategy?
A. Scope
B. Synergy
C. Corporate objective
D. benchmarking



20. A _____ is a single product or brand, a line of products, or a mix of related products that meets a common or a group of related market needs, and its management is responsible for the basic unctions.
A. market section
B. strategic business unit
C. business segment
D. marginal piece



21. Which of the following is the first step in a marketing strategy process?
A. Market-driven program development
B. Designing market-driven strategy
C. Identifying and evaluating markets, segments, and customer value
D. Implementing and managing market-driven strategy



22. Which of the following stages of marketing strategy process consists of brand, value-chain, pricing, and promotion and selling strategies designed and implemented to meet the value requirements of targeted buyers?
A. Implementing and managing market-driven strategy
B. Designing market-driven strategy
C. Identifying and evaluating markets, segments, and customer value
D. Market-driven program development



23. Which of the following stages of marketing strategy process considers organizational design and marketing strategy implementation and control?
A. Implementing and managing market-driven strategy
B. Designing market-driven strategy
C. Identifying and evaluating markets, segments, and customer value
D. Market-driven program development



24. _____ offer(s) a company the opportunity to focus its business on the requirements of one or more groups of buyers. 
A. Corporate resources
B. Market segmentation
C. Business composition
D. Distinctive capabilities



25. _____ are described by different characteristics of customers, the reasons that they buy or use certain products, and their preferences for certain brands of products.
A. Market shares
B. Strategic marketing objectives
C. Market segments
D. Corporate capabilities




26. _____ examines customer targeting and positioning strategies, marketing relationship strategies, and innovation and new product strategy.
A. Identifying markets, segments, and customer value
B. Implementing and managing market-driven strategy
C. Designing market-driven strategy
D. Market-driven program development



27. The purpose of _____ is to select the people (or organizations) that management wishes to serve in the product-market.
A. strategic positioning
B. benchmarking
C. customer linking
D. market targeting strategy



28. _____ is the combination of the product, value chain, price, and promotion strategies a firm uses to place itself against its key competitors in meeting the needs and wants of the buyers in the market target.
A. Positioning strategy
B. Customer relationship management
C. Customer linking
D. Market targeting strategy



29. _____ seeks to place the brand in the eyes and mind of the buyer and distinguish the product from those in competition.
A. Customer relationship strategy
B. Positioning strategy
C. Benchmarking
D. Value-chain strategy


  17
30. Which of the following activities is an example of promotion strategy?
A. Distinctive capabilities
B. Benchmarking
C. Public relations
D. Product positioning



Essay Questions

31. What does becoming market-oriented mean from a business perspective? What are its features?

32. Describe the characteristics of market-driven strategies.


33. Discuss how customers perceive value and how companies deliver customer value.


35. Discuss the steps involved in implementing marketing strategies.



MKT 510 Week 2 Assignment 1 – Strayer NEW

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Assignment 1: Culture and Marketing Strategy

Briefly describe the chosen advertisement, and explain where you located it.

Analyze the underlying assumptions that the authors of the ad seem to make about the consumers that this advertisement targets.  Determine how the ad is using these perceived assumptions to evoke a consumer response.

Determine at least one consumer group that the ad excludes, and provide a rationale for why the ad would not appeal to the group that you have identified.

Evaluate this advertisement and its relationship with cultural values (i.e…determine if the ad is designed to emphasize a set of values or if it is designed to change a cultural value in society).




MKT 500 Week 2 Discussion Question– Strayer NEW



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"The Tata Nano: The People’s Car (A) and Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs"  Please respond to the following:
•           From the case study, categorize the Nano’s marketing segments that have the greatest influence on its sales. Assume you are the marketing manager at Tato responsible for consumer marketing. In your own words, outline a plan that Tato could implement in order to make the process to purchase the Nano more efficient for potential buyers.
•           * From the scenario, analyze each level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, and articulate the level which most affects you when making a purchase. Provide support for your rationale by utilizing an example.




LEG 500 Week 2 Discussion Question – Strayer NEW



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Week 2 DQ
"The Duty of Loyalty and Whistleblowing" Please respond to the following:
·         Analyze the duty of loyalty in whistleblower cases to determine to whom loyalty is owed and who shows the greater duty of loyalty. Support your analysis with specific examples. Then, suggest at least one (1) change to an existing law.
·         Reexamine the Citizens United decision in Chapter 1, and determine which of the following groups has the greatest free speech rights: corporations, public employees, or private employees. Provide a rationale for your determination.



FIN 350 Week 2 Quiz – Strayer NEW



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Chapter 1—Role of Financial Markets and Institutions

     1.   Financial market participants who provide funds are called
a.
deficit units.
b.
surplus units.
c.
primary units.
d.
secondary units.


                                          
          
          

     2.   The main provider(s) of funds to the U.S. Treasury is (are)
a.
households and businesses.
b.
foreign financial institutions.
c.
the Federal Reserve System.
d.
foreign nonfinancial sectors.


                                          
          
          

     3.   The largest deficit unit is (are)
a.
households and businesses.
b.
foreign financial institutions.
c.
the U.S. Treasury.
d.
foreign nonfinancial sectors.


                                          
          
          

     4.   Those financial markets that facilitate the flow of short-term funds are known as
a.
money markets.
b.
capital markets.
c.
primary markets.
d.
secondary markets.


                                          
          
          

     5.   Funds are provided to the initial issuer of securities in the
a.
secondary market.
b.
primary market.
c.
deficit market.
d.
surplus market.


                                          
          
          

     6.   Which of the following is a capital market instrument?
a.
a six-month CD
b.
a three-month Treasury bill
c.
a ten-year bond
d.
an agreement for a bank to loan funds directly to a company for nine months


                                          
          


     7.   Which of the following is a money market security?
a.
Treasury note
b.
municipal bond
c.
mortgage
d.
commercial paper


                                          
          


     8.   The creditors in the federal funds market are
a.
households.
b.
depository institutions.
c.
firms.
d.
government agencies.


                                          
          
          

     9.   Equity securities have a ____ expected return than most long-term debt securities, and they exhibit a ____ degree of risk.
a.
higher; higher
b.
lower; lower
c.
lower; higher
d.
higher; lower


                                          
          


   10.   Money market securities generally have ____. Capital market securities are typically expected to have a ____.
a.
less liquidity; higher annualized return
b.
more liquidity; lower annualized return
c.
less liquidity; lower annualized return
d.
more liquidity; higher annualized return


                                          
          


   11.   If security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are
a.
efficient.
b.
primary.
c.
overvalued.
d.
undervalued.


                                          
          
          

   12.   If markets are ____, investors could use available information ignored by the market to earn abnormally high returns.
a.
perfect
b.
active
c.
inefficient
d.
in equilibrium


                                          
          
          

   13.   If financial markets are efficient, this implies that all securities should earn the same return.
a. True
b. False


          


   14.   The Securities Act of 1933
a.
required complete disclosure of relevant financial information for publicly offered securities in the primary market.
b.
declared trading strategies to manipulate the prices of public secondary securities illegal.
c.
declared misleading financial statements for public primary securities illegal.
d.
required complete disclosure of relevant financial information for securities traded in the secondary market.
e.
all of the above


                                          
          
          

   15.   The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC) was established by the
a.
Federal Reserve Act.
b.
McFadden Act.
c.
Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
d.
Glass-Steagall Act.
e.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   16.   Common stock is an example of a(n)
a.
debt security.
b.
money market security.
c.
equity security.
d.
A and B


                                          
          
          

   17.   If financial markets were ____, all information about any securities for sale in primary and secondary markets would be continuously and freely available to investors.
a.
efficient
b.
inefficient
c.
perfect
d.
imperfect


                                          
          


   18.   The typical role of a securities firm in a public offering of securities is to
a.
purchase the entire issue for its own investment.
b.
place the entire issue with a single large investor.
c.
spread the issue across several investors until the entire issue is sold.
d.
provide all large investors with loans so that they can invest in the offering.


                                          
          
          

   19.   Without the participation of financial intermediaries in financial market transactions,
a.
information and transaction costs would be lower.
b.
transaction costs would be higher but information costs would be unchanged.
c.
information costs would be higher but transaction costs would be unchanged.
d.
information and transaction costs would be higher.


                                          
          


   20.   Which of the following is most likely to be described as a depository institution?
a.
finance companies
b.
securities firms
c.
credit unions
d.
pension funds
e.
insurance companies


                                          
          
          

   21.   In aggregate, ____ are the most dominant depository institution, with more total assets than other depository institutions.
a.
commercial banks
b.
savings banks
c.
credit unions
d.
S&Ls


                                          
          
          

   22.   Which of the following is a nondepository financial institution?
a.
savings banks
b.
commercial banks
c.
savings and loan associations
d.
mutual funds


                                          
          
          

   23.   Which of the following distinguishes credit unions from commercial banks and savings institutions?
a.
Credit unions are non-profit
b.
Credit unions accept deposits but do not make loans
c.
Credit unions make loans but do not accept deposits
d.
Savings institutions restrict their business to members who share a common bond


                                          
          


   24.   When a securities firm acts as a broker, it
a.
guarantees the issuer a specific price for newly issued securities.
b.
makes a market in specific securities by adjusting its own inventory.
c.
executes transactions between two parties.
d.
purchases securities for its own account.


                                          
          
          

   25.   When a securities firm acts as a(n) ____, it maintains a position in securities.
a.
adviser
b.
dealer
c.
broker
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   26.   ____ obtain funds by issuing securities, then lend the funds to individuals and small businesses.
a.
Finance companies
b.
Securities firms
c.
Mutual funds
d.
Insurance companies


                                          
          
          

   27.   Households with ____ are served by ____.
a.
deficient funds; depository institutions and finance companies
b.
deficient funds; finance companies only
c.
savings; finance companies only
d.
savings; pension funds and finance companies


                                          
          
          

   28.   ____ concentrate on mortgage loans.
a.
Finance companies
b.
Commercial banks
c.
Savings institutions
d.
Credit unions


                                          
          
          

   29.   ____ securities have a maturity of one year or less; ____ securities are generally more liquid.
a.
Money market; capital market
b.
Money market; money market
c.
Capital market; money market
d.
Capital market; capital market


                                          
          
          

   30.   Which of the following is not a major investor in stocks?
a.
commercial banks
b.
insurance companies
c.
mutual funds
d.
pension funds


                                          
          
          

   31.   Which of the following financial intermediaries commonly invests in stocks and bonds?
a.
pension funds
b.
insurance companies
c.
mutual funds
d.
all of the above


                                          
          
          

   32.   Securities are certificates that represent a claim on the issuer.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   33.   Debt securities are certificates that represent debt (borrowed funds) by the issuer.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   34.   A five-year security was purchased two years ago by an investor who plans to resell it. The security will be sold by the investor in the so-called
a.
secondary market.
b.
primary market.
c.
deficit market.
d.
surplus market.


                                          
          


   35.   When security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are said to be efficient.
a. True
b. False

                                           
          
          

   36.   If markets are perfect, securities buyers and sellers to not have full access to information and cannot always break down securities to the precise size they desire.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   37.   A broker executes securities transactions between two parties and charges a fee reflected in the bid-ask spread.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   38.   The euro increased business between European countries and created a more competitive environment in Europe.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   39.   In recent years, financial institutions have consolidated to capitalize on economies of scale and on economies of scope.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   40.   Securities are certificates that represent a claim on the provider of funds.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   41.   Debt securities include commercial paper, Treasury bonds, and corporate bonds.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   42.   Common types of capital market securities include Treasury bills and commercial paper.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   43.   Common types of money market securities include negotiable certificates of deposit and Treasury bills.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   44.   Money market securities are commonly issued in order to finance the purchase of assets such as buildings, equipment, or machinery.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   45.   The total asset value of savings institutions is larger than that of commercial banks.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   46.   Financial markets facilitating the flow of short-term funds with maturities of less than one year are known as
a.
secondary markets.
b.
capital markets.
c.
primary markets.
d.
money markets.
e.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   47.   Which of the following transactions would not be considered a secondary market transaction?
a.
An individual investor purchases some existing shares of stock in IBM through his broker.
b.
An institutional investor sells some Disney stock through its broker.
c.
A firm that was privately held engages in an offering of stock to the public.
d.
All of the above are secondary market transactions.


                                          
          


   48.   If investors speculate in the underlying asset rather than derivative contracts on the underlying asset, they will probably achieve ____ returns, and they are exposed to relatively ____ risk.
a.
lower; lower
b.
lower; higher
c.
higher; lower
d.
higher; higher


                                          
          
          

   49.   ____ maintain a larger amount of assets in aggregate than the other types of nondepository institutions.
a.
Finance companies
b.
Mutual funds
c.
Life insurance companies
d.
Securities firms


                                          
          
          

   50.   A common use of funds for ____ is investment in stocks and businesses, while their main use of funds is providing loans to households and businesses.
a.
savings institutions
b.
commercial banks
c.
mutual funds
d.
finance companies


                                          
          
          

   51.   Long-term debt securities tend to have a ____ expected return and ____ risk than money market securities.
a.
lower; lower
b.
lower; higher
c.
higher; lower
d.
higher; higher


                                          
          


   52.   Common types of capital market securities include Treasury bills and commercial paper.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   53.   Common types of money market securities include negotiable certificates of deposit and Treasury bills.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   54.   Capital market securities are commonly issued in order to finance the purchase of assets such as buildings, equipment, or machinery.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   55.   Commercial banks in aggregate have more assets than credit unions.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   56.   Those participants who receive more money than they spend are referred to as
a.
deficit units.
b.
surplus units.
c.
borrowing units.
d.
government units.


                                          
          
          

   57.   Equity securities
a.
have a maturity.
b.
pay interest on a periodic basis.
c.
represent ownership in the issuer.
d.
repay the principal amount at maturity.


                                          
          


   58.   The term ____ involves decisions such as how much funding to obtain, and how to invest the proceeds to expand operations.
a.
corporate finance
b.
investment management
c.
financial markets and institutions
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   59.   There is a ____ relationship between the risk of a security and the expected return from investing in the security.
a.
positive
b.
negative
c.
indeterminable
d.
none of the above


                                          
          


   60.   If a security is undervalued, some investors would capitalize from this by purchasing that security. As a result, the security's price will ____, resulting in a ____ return for those investors.
a.
rise; lower
b.
fall; higher
c.
fall; lower
d.
rise; higher


                                          
          


   61.   The credit crisis in the 2008-2009 period was caused by weak economies in Asia.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   62.   ____ are classified as a depository institution.
a.
Credit unions
b.
Pension funds
c.
Finance companies
d.
Securities firms


                                          
          
          

   63.   The main reason that depository institutions experienced financial problems during the credit crisis was their investment in:
a.
mortgages.
b.
money market securities.
c.
stock.
d.
Treasury bonds.


                                          
          


   64.   Those financial markets that facilitate the flow of short-term funds (with maturities of less than one year) are known as capital markets, while those that facilitate the flow of long-term funds are known as money markets.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   65.   Treasury bonds have a maturity of one to three years.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   66.   Since markets are efficient, institutional and individual investors should ignore the various investment instruments available.
a. True
b. False


          


   67.   Speculating with derivative contracts on an underlying asset typically results in both higher risk and higher returns than speculating in the underlying asset itself.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          


   68.   When security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are said to be perfect.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   69.   Securities that are not as safe and liquid as other securities are never considered for investment by anyone.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   70.   By requiring full disclosure of information, securities laws prevent investors from making poor investment decisions.
a. True
b. False


          


   71.   When a depository institution offers a loan, it is acting as a creditor.
a. True
b. False

                                          
          
          

   72.   Savings institutions represent a nondepository institution.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   73.   Most mutual funds obtain funds by issuing securities, then lend the funds to individuals and small businesses.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   74.   Institutional investors not only provide financial support to companies but exercise some degree of corporate control over them.
a. True
b. False


          


   75.   Which of the following is not a reason why depository financial institutions are popular?
a.
They offer deposit accounts that can accommodate the amount and liquidity characteristics desired by most surplus units.
b.
They repackage funds received from deposits to provide loans of the size and maturity desired by deficit units.
c.
They accept the risk on loans provided.
d.
They use their information resources to act as a broker, executing securities transactions between two parties.
e.
They have more expertise than individual surplus units in evaluating the creditworthiness of deficit units.


                                          
          
          

   76.   According to your text, which of the following is not considered a money market security?
a.
Treasury bills
b.
Treasury notes
c.
retail CD
d.
banker's acceptance
e.
commercial paper


                                          
          
          

   77.   ____ are not considered capital market securities.
a.
Repurchase agreements
b.
Municipal bonds
c.
Corporate bonds
d.
Equity securities
e.
Mortgages


                                          
          
          

   78.   ____ are long-term debt obligations issued by corporations and government agencies to support their operations.
a.
Common stock
b.
Derivative securities
c.
Bonds
d.
None of the above


                                          
          
          

   79.   Equity securities should normally have a ____ expected return and ____ risk than money market securities.
a.
lower; lower
b.
lower; higher
c.
higher; lower
d.
higher; higher


                                          
          


   80.   If investors speculate in derivative contracts rather than the underlying asset, they will probably achieve ____ returns, and they are exposed to relatively ____ risk.
a.
lower; lower
b.
lower; higher
c.
higher; lower
d.
higher; higher


                                          
          


   81.   When particular securities are perceived to be ____ by the market, their prices decrease when they are sold by investors.
a.
undervalued
b.
overvalued
c.
fairly priced
d.
efficient
e.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   82.   Which of the following are not considered depository financial institutions?
a.
finance companies
b.
commercial banks
c.
savings institutions
d.
credit unions
e.
All of the above are depository financial institutions.


                                          
          
          

   83.   The main source of funds for ____ is proceeds from selling securities to households and businesses, while their main use of funds is providing loans to households and businesses.
a.
savings institutions
b.
commercial banks
c.
mutual funds
d.
finance companies
e.
pension funds


                                          
          
          

   84.   Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a.
Financial markets attract funds from investors and channel the funds to corporations.
b.
Money markets enable corporations to borrow funds on a short-term basis so that they can support their existing operations.
c.
Financial institutions serve solely as intermediaries with the financial markets and never serve as investors.
d.
Investors seek to invest their funds in the stock of firms that are presently undervalued and have much potential to improve.


                                          
          
          

   85.   Which of the following is not a typical money market security?
a.
Treasury bills
b.
Treasury bonds
c.
Commercial paper
d.
Negotiable certificates of deposit


                                          
          
          

   86.   Debt securities issued by a small firm may be ________, meaning that _______ investors want to invest in those securities.
a.
a.   liquid; many
b.
a.   liquid; not many
c.
a.   illiquid; not many
d.
a.   illiquid; many


                                          
          


   87.   Valuing stocks is easier than valuing debt securities because stocks promise to provide investors with specific payments at regular intervals.
a. True
b. False


          
          

   88.   ____________ applies psychology to financial decisions and offers an explanation for why markets are not always efficient.
a.
a.   Psychological marketing
b.
a.   Behavioral finance
c.
a.   Inefficient markets theory
d.
a.   Financial psychology


                                          
          
          

   89.   International integration of securities markets allows:
a.
a.   governments and corporations to have easier access to funding from creditors and investors in other countries.
b.
a.   investors and creditors to benefit from investment opportunities in other countries.
c.
a.   one’s country’s financial problems to adversely affect other countries.
d.
a.   All of the above


                                          
          
          

   90.   The foreign exchange market facilitates the exchange of:
a.
a.   information between investors in different countries.
b.
a.   debt securities.
c.
a.   equity securities.
d.
a.   currencies.


                                          
          
          

   91.   Which of the following is not an example of the government’s recent increased role in financial markets?
a.
a.   the Federal Reserve’s purchase of debt securities during the credit crisis
b.
a.   regulations changing the way that the credit risk of bonds is assessed
c.
a.   regulations setting maximum rates for Treasury securities
d.
a.   increased monitoring of stock trading and prosecution of those who trade on inside information


                                          
          


   92.   Commercial paper represents long-term debt obligations created to finance the purchase of commercial property.
a. True
b. False


          


   93.   The risk that financial problems could spread among financial institutions and across financial markets, causing a collapse of the financial system, is known as:
a.
a.   systemic risk.
b.
a.   leverage risk.
c.
a.   financial meltdown risk.
d.
a.   credit risk.


                                          
          
          

   94.   Systemic risk exists because:
a.
a.   there is no government regulation of financial markets.
b.
a.   financial institutions invest in similar securities and therefore are similarly exposed to large declines in prices of those securities.
c.
a.   financial institutions borrow using long-term debt securities but lend their funds for short-term periods.
d.
a.   financial institutions invest heavily in Treasury securities and therefore are exposed to the possibility that the government will default on its debts.


                                          
          
          


Chapter 2—Determination of Interest Rates

MULTIPLE CHOICE

     1.   The level of installment debt as a percentage of disposable income is generally ____ during recessionary periods.
a.
higher
b.
lower
c.
zero
d.
negative


                                          
          
          

     2.   At any given point in time, households would demand a ____ quantity of loanable funds at ____ rates of interest.
a.
greater; higher
b.
greater; lower
c.
smaller; lower
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

     3.   Businesses demand loanable funds to
a.
finance installment debt.
b.
subsidize other companies.
c.
invest in fixed and short-term assets.
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

     4.   The required return to implement a given business project will be ____ if interest rates are lower. This implies that businesses will demand a ____ quantity of loanable funds when interest rates are lower.
a.
greater; lower
b.
lower; greater
c.
lower; lower
d.
greater; greater


                                          
          


     5.   If interest rates are ____, ____ projects will have positive NPVs.
a.
higher; more
b.
lower; more
c.
lower; no
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

     6.   The demand for funds resulting from business investment in short-term assets is ____ related to the number of projects implemented, and is therefore ____ related to the interest rate.
a.
inversely; positively
b.
positively; inversely
c.
inversely; inversely
d.
positively; positively


                                          
          


     7.   If economic conditions become less favorable, then:
a.
expected cash flows on various projects will increase.
b.
more proposed projects will have expected returns greater than the hurdle rate.
c.
there would be additional acceptable business projects.
d.
there would be a decreased demand by business for loanable funds.


                                          
          
          

     8.   As a result of more favorable economic conditions, there is a(n) ____ demand for loanable funds, causing an ____ shift in the demand curve.
a.
decreased; inward
b.
decreased; outward
c.
increased; outward
d.
increased; inward


                                          
          


     9.   The federal government demand for loanable funds is ____. If the budget deficit was expected to increase, the federal government demand for loanable funds would ____.
a.
interest elastic; decrease
b.
interest elastic; increase
c.
interest inelastic; increase
d.
interest inelastic; decrease


                                          
          
          

   10.   Other things being equal, foreign governments and corporations would demand ____ U.S. funds if their local interest rates were lower than U.S. rates. Therefore, for a given set of foreign interest rates, foreign demand for U.S. funds is ____ related to U.S. interest rates.
a.
less; inversely
b.
more; positively
c.
less; positively
d.
more; inversely


                                          
          
          

   11.   For a given set of foreign interest rates, the quantity of U.S. loanable funds demanded by foreign governments or firms will be ____ U.S. interest rates.
a.
positively related to
b.
inversely related to
c.
unrelated to
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   12.   The quantity of loanable funds supplied is normally
a.
highly interest elastic.
b.
more interest elastic than the demand for loanable funds.
c.
less interest elastic than the demand for loanable funds.
d.
equally interest elastic as the demand for loanable funds.
e.
A and B


                                          
          
          

   13.   The ____ sector is the largest supplier of loanable funds.
a.
household
b.
government
c.
business
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   14.   If a strong economy allows for a large ____ in households income, the supply curve will shift ____.
a.
decrease; outward
b.
increase; inward
c.
increase; outward
d.
none of the above


                                          
          
          

   15.   The equilibrium interest rate
a.
equates the aggregate demand for funds with the aggregate supply of loanable funds.
b.
equates the elasticity of the aggregate demand and supply for loanable funds.
c.
decreases as the aggregate supply of loanable funds decreases.
d.
increases as the aggregate demand for loanable funds decreases.


                                          
          
          

   16.   The equilibrium interest rate should
a.
fall when the aggregate supply funds exceeds aggregate demand for funds.
b.
rise when the aggregate supply of funds exceeds aggregate demand for funds.
c.
fall when the aggregate demand for funds exceeds aggregate supply of funds.
d.
rise when aggregate demand for funds equals aggregate supply of funds.
e.
B and C


                                          
          


   17.   Which of the following is likely to cause a decrease in the equilibrium U.S. interest rate, other things being equal?
a.
a decrease in savings by foreign savers
b.
an increase in inflation
c.
pessimistic economic projections that cause businesses to reduce expansion plans
d.
a decrease in savings by U.S. households